Let Y be a continuous random variable such that P(Y0)=1 and E(Y)=1. For pin(0,1), let xip denote the p^th quantile of the probability distribution of the random variable Y. Then which of the following statements is always correct?

Q5Section A (Section A)5 of 60

Upper bound for the third quartile

Let $Y$ be a continuous random variable such that $P(Y>0)=1$ and $E(Y)=1$ . For $p\in(0,1)$ , let $\xi_p$ denote the $p^{\mathrm{th}}$ quantile of the probability distribution of the random variable $Y$ . Then which of the following statements is always correct?

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